| Question / Issue |
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| I have a question about the Hebrew and Greek the Bible is written in. When I read a Strong's Concordance, it gives definitions of the Hebrew and Greek. Who decides the authoritativeness of the definitions? I have always wonder about this! Are there ancient Hebrew and Greek instruction manuals that Luther or Tyndale used and the men that came in the centuries before them used? Or was the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek passed down from teacher to student? What is the most authoritative instruction in Biblical Greek and Hebrew? I know the history of Bible translations, the difference between Byzantine and Alexandrian, but I have never read nor can I find an answer to this question. God bless your ministry! |
| Answer / Solution |
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| Sorry this took so long. Guess we're wondering the same thing and we don't have a definitive answer for you. The answer is fairly obvious, however, in that if there was such a manuscript for translating, why would that be any more authoritative than the translators themselves? There is no inspired work such as this that came through the Holy Spirit as the Bible did. The correctness of translations are judged by peer review; that is, other experts commenting on parts of a translation. |
FAQ ID # 4452
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